dsc.english syllabus

School Assistant - English
Syllabus
Part – I
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS (Marks: 10)
Part - II
PERSPECTIVES IN EDUCATION (Marks: 10)
1. History of Education : Pre-Vedic and Post-Vedic period, Medieval Education,
Recommendations of various committees during British period with special
reference to Woods Despatch (1854), Hunter Commission (1882), Hartog
Committee (1929), Sargent Committee (1944), Recommendations of various
committees during post independent period with special reference to
Mudaliar Commission (1952-53), Kothari Commission(1964-66), Ishwarbhai
Patel committee (1977), NPE-1986, POA-1992
2. Teacher Empowerment: Meaning, interventions for empowerment,
Professional code of conduct for teachers, Teacher motivation, Professional
development of Teachers and Teacher organizations, National / State Level
Organizations for Teacher Education, Maintenance of Records and Registers
in Schools.
3. Educational Concerns in Contemporary India: Environmental Education,
Meaning and scope of Environmental Education, Concept of sustainable
development, Role of Teacher, School and NGOs in development and
protection of environment, Democracy and Education, Equality, Equity,
Quality in Education, Equality of Educational opportunities, Economics of
Education, Meaning and scope, Education as Human Capital, Education
and Human Resource Development, Literacy – Saakshar Bharat Mission,
Population Education, Significance of Population Education, Population
situation, policies and programmes in India, Approaches to Population
Education and role of school and teacher, Themes of population Education,
Family life Education, Sustainable development, Adolescence Education,
Health Education, Gender – Equality, Equity and Empowerment of Women,
Urbanization and migration, Life skills, Inclusive Education,
Conceptual Clarification and Definition, Prevalence, Myths & Facts,
Characteristics, Classification & Types, Importance of Early Identification
and assessment, Planning Inclusive Education, Classroom Management in
Inclusive Education, Evaluation, Documentation and Record Maintenance,
Psycho-Social management, Awareness & Sensitization Strategies,
Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization, Value Education, Sarva
Siksha Abhiyan, National Programme for Education of Girls at Elementary
Level (NPEGEL), Mid-day-meals, Rashtriya Madhyamika Siksha
Abhiyan(RMSA), KGBVs and SUCCESS Schools.
4. Acts / Rights: Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act,
2009, Right to Information Act, 2005, Child Rights, Human Rights
5. National Curriculum Framework, 2005: Perspective, Learning and
Knowledge, Curricular Areas, School Stages and Assessment, School and
Classroom Environment, Systemic Reforms
Part - III
CONTENT (Marks : 44)
I. Language Elements
i) Elements of Phonetics
ii) Idioms
iii) Writing Skills – Curriculum Vitae, Information transfer, Letter Writing
SA - English Page 2
iv) Study Skills – Note-making, Note-taking
v) Reference Skills
vi) Vocabulary
vii) Punctuation
viii) Grammar (Parts of Speech, Tenses, Types of Sentences, Articles and
Prepositions, Degrees of Comparison, Direct Speech and Indirect Speech,
Clauses Voice – Active and Passive Voice)
II. Literature
1. Comprehension of
(i) Literary Prose Passage and
(ii) A Poem
2. Study of Literary Forms
(i) Poetry – Sonnet, Ode, Elegy, Ballad, Lyric, Dramatic Monologue
(ii) Prose – (a) Drama (Structure, Characters, Dialogues, Soliloquy,
Tragedy, Comedy, Tragic-comedy)
(b) Fiction (Point of view, Setting / Atmosphere, Style,
Technique of Narration)
3. For detailed and critical study
Name of the poet Title
Poetry 1. William Wordsworth 1. Anecdote for Fathers
2. A Spring Morning
3. R.L. Stevenson 3.The Swing
2. Emily Dickenson 4. Because I Could not Stop for
Death
3. D.H. Lawrance 5. Daybreak
4. Robert Frost 6. The Road not Taken
5. P.B. Shelley 6. The Cloud
6. Oliver Goldsmith 7. The Death of a Mad Dog
7. Ralph Waldo Emerson 8. The Nation’s Strength
8. Rabindranath Tagore 9. Upagupta,
10.Where the Mind is
Without Fear
10. Sarojini Naidu 11.Bangle Sellers,
12.Palanquin
Bearers
11. Shiv K. Kumar 13. Mother’s Day
Prose
(Essay/
Novel)
1. Oscar Wilde 1. The Nightingale and the Rose
2. Stephen Leacock 2. How to Live to be 200
3. E.V. Lucas 3. The face on the Wall
4. O’ Henry 4. After Twenty Years
5. Isaac Asimov 5. Robots and People
6. Fritz Karinthy 6. The Refund
7. George Orwell 7. Animal Farm (original version)
8. R.K. Laxman 8. The Gold Frame
Drama 1. W. Shakespeare 1. Julius Caesar
2. W. Shakespeare 2. Macbeth
3. J.B. Priestly 3. Mother’s Day (One - act play)
SA - English Page 3
Note: The Candidates are expected to have thorough knowledge of the above
mentioned poets, essayists, novelists and dramatists and their respective
works mentioned at the level that is expected of a student of literature.
Part - IV
Teaching Methodology (Marks: 16)
(i) Aspects of English:-
(a) English language – History, Nature, Importance, Principles of English as
Second Language.
(b) Problems of teaching / learning English.
(ii) Objectives of Teaching English.
(iii) Phonetics / Transcription.
(iv) Development of Language skills:-
(a) Listening, Speaking, Reading & Writing (LSRW).
(b)Communicative skills – Imparting values through Communication.
(v) Approaches, Methods & Techniques of teaching English:-
(a) Introduction, Definition & Types of Approaches, Methods & Techniques of
teaching English
(b) Remedial Teaching.
(vi) Teaching of Structures and Vocabulary.
(vii) Teaching Learning Materials in English.
(viii) Lesson Planning.
(ix) Curriculum & Textbooks – Importance and its need.
(x) Evaluation in English Language.

MODEL UGC -NET PAPER I

This sample paper in for Paper I of the UGC NET Exam which is common for all streams.

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?

(A) To give information related to the syllabus.

(B) To develop thinking power of students.

(C) To dictate notes to students.

(D) To prepare students to pass the examination.

2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?

(A) Lecture and Dictation

(B) Seminar and Project

(C) Seminar and Dictation

(D) Dictation and Assignment

3. Teacher uses teaching aids for

(A) Making teaching interesting

(B) Making teaching within understanding level of students

(C) Making students attentive.

(D) The sake of its use.

4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on

(A) Qualification of teacher

(B) Personality of teacher

(C) Handwriting of teacher

(D) Subject understanding of teacher

5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?

(A) Objectivity

(B) Subjectivity

(C) No use of vague words

(D) Reliable.

6. A researcher is generally expected to:

(A) Study the existing literature in a field

(B) Generate new principles and theories

(C) Synthesize the idea given by others

(D) Evaluate the findings of a study

7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:

(A) Replicability

(B) Generalizability

(C) Usability

(D) Objectivity

8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research used in this process is:

(A) Case Study

(B) Developmental

(C) Survey

(D) Experimental

9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and future plans. Such an assembly is known as a

(A) Conference

(B) Seminar

(C) Workshop

(D) Symposium

10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based on them. Such a write-up is called

(A) Research paper

(B) Article

(C) Thesis

(D) Research report

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15

The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been more than 10 per cent.

Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage.

But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.

11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our

(A) Political system

(B) Social behavior

(C) Individual behavior

(D) Behavior of a group of people

12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind

(A) Economic prosperity

(B) Vote bank

(C) People' welfare

(D) Patriotism

13. "Trump Card" means

(A) Trying to move a dead horse

(B) Playing the card cautiously

(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others

(D) Making the final jolt for success

14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power" implies

(A) Lust for power

(B) Desire to serve the nation

(C) Conviction in one's own political abilities

(D) Political corruption

15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha

(A) 10

(B) 7. 91

(C) 43

(D) 9. 1

16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as

(A) Interpersonal communication

(B) Intrapersonal Communication

(C) Mass Communication

(D) Grapevine Communication

17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology subject is known as

(A) Gyan Darshan

(B) Vyas

(C) Eklavya

(D) Kisan

18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for public information:

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Kerala

(D) Punjab

19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is

(A) Inform, Entertainment & Education

(B) Entertain, Information & Interaction

(C) Educate, Interact & entertain

(D) Entertainment only

20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the basis of:

(A) Personality of communicator

(B) Experience in the field

(C) Interactivity with target audience

(D) Meeting the needs of target audience.

21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous date:

(A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony

(B) Trees in a garden

(C) Vehicular traffic on a highway

(D) Student population in a class

22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief?

(A) Antecedent - consequent

(B) Acceptability

(C) Verifiability

(D) Demonstratability

23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is

(A) A fact

(B) An value

(C) An opinion

(D) A value judgement

24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard?

(A) Beam

(B) Plank

(C) Shaft

(D) Timber

25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64, ?

(A) 300

(B) 200

(C) 100

(D) 150

26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two big circles represent animals living on soil and those living in water, and the small circle stands for the animals who both live on soil and in water, which figure represents the relationships among them.

UGC NET SAMPLE PAPER I

27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but both can be false. Which are these two statements?

(i) All machines make noise

(ii) Some machines are noisy

(iii) No machine makes noise

(iv) Some machines are not noisy

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iv)

28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.

(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our errors.

Assumptions:

(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.

(ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of error-free work.

(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit

(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit

(C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit

(D) Both the assumptions are implicit

29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii) Decide which of the arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the correct answer from the given below Should the press exercise some self-restraint?

(i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to indulge in wrong practices.

(ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of the consequences.

(A) Only the argument (i) is strong

(B) Only the argument (ii) is strong

(C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

(D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong

30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given below carefully.

Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up. Inference: So the helicopter will definitely fall down.

What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument?

(A) Valid

(B) Invalid

(C) Doubtful

(D) Long drawn one

Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below.
Students Papers

I
II III IV
W

60
81 45 55
X

59
43 51 A
Y

74
A 71 65
Z

72
76 A 68

Where 'A' stands for absent

Where 'A' stands for absent

Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35

31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

33. Who has obtained the highest average

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates

(A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

36. ICT stands for

(A) Information common technology

(B) Information & communication technology

(C) Information and computer technology

(D) Inter connected technology

37. Computer Can

(A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information

(B) Store huge information

(C) Process information and fast accurately

(D) All the above.

38. Satellite Communication works through

(A) Rader

(B) Transponder

(C) Receptor

(D) Transmitter

39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This definition of computer is

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) Partially correct

(D) None of the above.

40. Information and communication technology includes

(A) E-mail

(B) Internet

(C) Education television

(D) All the above.

41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global warming will eventually result in.

(A) Increase in availability of usable land.

(B) Uniformity of climate at equator and poles.

(C) Fall in the sea level

(D) melting of polar ice.

42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic contamination?

(A) Haryana

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Sikkim

(D) West Bengal

43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for

(A) Grasslands

(B) Conifers

(C) Mangroves

(D) Arid forests

44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river

(A) Ganga

(B) Godavari

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Narmada

45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?

(A) Pine

(B) Teak

(C) Neem

(D) Oak

46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical education in India:

(A) Medical

(B) Management

(C) Pharmaceutical

(D) Aeronautical

47. Which of the following is a Central university

(A) Mumbai University

(B) Calcutta University

(C) Delhi University

(D) Madras University

48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates

(A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature

(B) Supremacy of Parliament

(C) Supremacy of Judiciary

(D) Theory of Separation of Power

49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is:

(A) 30 % of the total seats

(B) 33 % of the total seate

(C) 33% of the total population

(D) In Proportion to their population

50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

LIST ( Institutions)

LIST II( Locations)

1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute

(i) Pune

2. Institute of Armament Technology

(ii) Izat Nagar

3. Indian Institute of Science

(iii) Delhi

4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi

(iv) Bangalore and Administrators

(A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii)

(B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii)

(C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)

(D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)

Source: Sample Paper based on questions provided by UGC Model Paper.

Answer Key:
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. D
41. D 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. A

ugc net education solved papers

UGC – NET / JRF Exam 2009

Subject – Education

Note – This paper contains 50 objective questions, each question carrying 2 marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. The teacher is very much concerned with epistemology because his aim is to promote –

(a) Values (b) Truth

(c) Knowledge (d) Skills

2. Which School of Philosophy maintains that the “universe is an expression of intelligence and will”?

(a) Pragmatism (b) Realism

(c) Idealism (d) existentialism

3. “Education according to interest rather than the caste, creed, race or religion” was propagated by –

(a) Vedantic Education (b) Islamic Education

(c) Jainistic Education (d) Buddhistic Education

4. The major constraint of social change is –

(a) Caste (b) Education (c) Religion (d) Poverty

5. Modernisation of ‘educational programmes’ has posed many issues in the society. Which one of the following is not applicable?

(a) Increasing numbers of crimes in teenagers

(b) Increasing number of suicides in students

(c) Misuse of media by youngsters

(d) Reduced status of teachers

6. Analysis of the sociological processes involved in the educational institutions could be known as –

(a) Social foundations of Education

(b) Sociology of Education

(c) Educational Sociology

(d) Social Science of Education

7. According to Talcott parson, social change deals with –

(a) Spritual upliftment

(b) Economic upliftment

(c) Cultural revolution

(d) Functional needs of the society

8. Caste system can create a –

(a) Closed society (b) Changing society

(c) Dead society (d) Open society

9. It is often complained that there is a ‘brain drain’ in our country. The implication is that –

(a) The brains of educated persons are being washed in unnecessary pursuits

(b) Students brains are burdened with education unnecessarily

(c) Education today is creating strain to the brains of students

(d) Educated and capable people are seeking jobs in other countries for better opportunities and economic benefits

10. Some sociologists have given importance to the functioning factors of social interaction. These factors are concerned with –

(a) The proximity and similarity of the societies

(b) The purpose and common facts of societies

(c) The needs and past experiences of the societies

(d) Goodness, common cause and economy of the societies

11. Which of the following is not a task of Philosophy?

(a) Speculation (b) Description and Analysis

(c) Prescription (d) Observation

12. Which of the following is not a unique feature of education envisaged by Swami Vivekananda?

(a) Cultivation of heart and physical strength

(b) Residential programme of education

(c) Intelligent productive manual labour

(d) Importance to concentrations

13. ‘Intuitive knowledge’ is attained through –

(a) External experiences

(b) Internal experiences

(c) Both internal external experiences

(d) Neither internal nor external experiences

14. “The child is an integral part of the ultimate universe” is the view point of –

(a) Realism (b) Pragmatism

(c) Existentialism (d) Idealism

15. Which of the following is not a suited connotation for ‘Equality of educational opportunity’?

(a) A policy of open access to education to all

(b) Equitable rationing and distribution of available resources to all

(c) Equalization of educational attainment by providing resources in favor of less able and less motivated group

(d) Investing more funds on education

16. ‘Learning in communion with nature’ was propagated by –

(a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Sri Aurobindo

(c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) Mahatma Gandhi

17. The founder of pragmatism was –

(a) John Dewey (b) William James

(c) Kilpatrick (d) Charles Sanders Peirce

18. Rousseau’s conception of ‘freedom’ was not accepted by –

(a) Pestalozzi (b) Jean Paul Sartre

(c) Paulo Freire (d) John Dewey

19. “Discipline through direct consequence” was propagated by –

(a) Existentialist (b) Pragmatist

(c) Naturalist (d) Realist

20. The School of Philosophy which upholds the primacy of ‘mind over matter’ is –

(a) Existentialism (b) Realism

(c) Pragmatism (d) Idealism

21. Two-factor theory of intelligence is given by –

(a) Alfred Binnet and L. Simon

(b) C. E. Spearman

(c) J. P. Guilford

(d) L. M. Terman

22. Children whose mental age is lower than chronological age are called –

(a) Gifted children (b) Normal children

(c) Learning disabled (d) Retarded children

23. Concepts are important vehicles in –

(a) Learning communication (b) Thinking processes

(c) Motivating the learner (d) Achievement of learner

24. The meaningful reception learning was explained by –

(a) Robert Gagne (b) David Ausubel

(c) Jean Piaget (d) Jerome S. Bruner

25. The type of learning explained by Albert Bandura is also known as –

(a) Insight learning (b) Observational learning

(c) Sign learning (d) Verbal learning

26. A child is working very hard for her examination. Her behavior is an indicator of her –

(a) Sharp cognitive abilities

(b) High achievement motivation

(c) Very busy schedule

(d) Desire to impress her parents

27. The purpose of instructional theory is –

(a) Descriptive (b) Instructive

(c) Prescriptive (d) Evaluative

28. The quality of questions in a test is assessed by using the method of –

(a) Item Analysis (b) Task Analysis

(c) Content Analysis (d) Trend Analysis

29. The size of a population is 100 and every 5^th person is selected to form a sample. This technique of sampling is known as –

(a) Random (b) Stratified (c) Cluster (d) Systematic

30. The operational definition of a variable indicates as to how that variable may be –

(a) Observed (b) Described (c) Measured (d) Explain

31. National Reconstruction in any country should be based on –

(a) Improvement of adjustability and adaptability of people

(b) Familiarizing the children with the nation’s culture and philosophy

(c) Weeding out the unsocial and unscientific practices at the top level

(d) Developing ambitious outlooks among administrator

32. Which of the following is not an attribute of culture?

(a) Shared (b) Transmittable

(c) Innate (d) Learnt

33. The Kothari commission’s report was entitled as –

(a) Education and National Development

(b) Learning to Be

(c) Diversification of Education

(d) Education and social change in Democracy

34. Acculturation is the process of –

(a) Developing qualities affecting the culture of a nation

(b) Accepting the innovations required for the development of nation’s culture

(c) Being influenced by the cultural imperatives of a nation

(d) Following the latest trends of a culture as opposed to the past traditions

35. The SUPW has been introduced in the school curriculum due to the recommendation of –

(a) The Kothari Education Commission’s Report

(b) The Ishverbhai Patel Educational Review Committee

(c) The Secondary Education Commission’s Report

(d) The University Education’s Committee Report

36. For Harmonious development of the personality of the child, parents should—

(a) Over-protect the child

(b) Regularly compare the child with other children

(c) Provide conductive environment at home

(d) Engage qualified teachers for her

37. During early phases of Development, Educational Psychology has drawn its content from the researches in –

(a) Physical Sciences (b) Medical Sciences

(c) Social Sciences (d) Natural Sciences

38. Who among the following described the intellectual development as age related development?

(a) Jerome S. Bruner (b) Jean Piaget

(c) David Ausubel (d) Hilda Taba

39. Most important factor(s) in the development of child are –

(a) Physical and moral environment of the child

(b) Social and Economic status of the family

(c) Educational and social status of parents

(d) Socio-economic and intellectual environment of the child

40. Differences in ‘Learning Styles’ among learners may be attributed to –

(a) Socialization process of learner

(b) Thinking strategies adopted by learner

(c) Economic conditions of the family

(d) Parenting of the child

41. If a test measures mastery level achievement in a subject, it is known as –

(a) Criterion-referenced test (b) Diagnostic test

(c) Norm-referenced test (d) Prognostic test

42. In an ethnographical study which of the following technique is most appropriate?

(a) Psychological testing (b) Questionnaire

(c) Observation (d) Sociometry

43. The correlation between X and Y is significant. It means that –

(a) X causes variation in Y (b) X and Y vary together

(c) Y causes variation in X (d) X and Y vary independently

44. If Q1, Q2, and Q3 represent 1^st, 2^nd and 3^rd quartiles respectively and Q semi-intrinsic quartile, then Q may be written as –

(a) Q₁ – Q₃ (b) Q₃ – Q₁/2 (c) Q₃ + Q₁/2 (d) Q₂ – Q₁

45. If K is added to every score of a distribution with mean ‘M’ and standard deviation ‘s’, the new standard deviation will be –

(a) K (b) s (c) s + K (d) Ks

46. If each Z-score of a distribution of scores is multiplied by 10 and the result increased by 50, the standard deviation of the resulting numbers would be –

(a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 10 (d) 5

47. Which of the following types of test-items make ‘supply type’ test?

(a) Multiple choice (b) Matching

(c) Classification (d) Completion

48. Which of the following purposes demands Action Research?

(a) Developing a theory

(b) Writing a thesis

(c) Solving a classroom problem

(d) Testing a theory

49. Median is also known as –

(a) 5% point (b) 50^th percentile

(c) 2^nd (d) 5^th deciles

(A) acb (B) bca (C) bcd (d) cda

50. Match the following List – I with List – II –

List – I

(Type of Correlation)

(a) Biserial correlation

(b) Pie coefficient

(c) Point – biserial correlation

(d) Tetrachoric correlation

List – II

1. Continuous Vs. continuous

2. Continuous Vs. Dichotomous

3. Dichotomous Vs. Dichotomous

4. Dichotomized Vs. Dichotomized

5. Continuous Vs. Dichotomized

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 1 5 2

(B) 5 3 2 4

(C) 3 2 5 2

(D) 5 4 2 1

Answer these Questions:-

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
C	C	A	A	C	C	D	A	D	D
11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
C	B	C	D	D	C	D	A	D	B
21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
B	D	B	C	B	B	D	C	D	A
31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
C	A	A	B	B	C	C	B	D	B
41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
C	D	B	B	B	C	D	C	C	A